How come people say “Would of”?





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I often read the expression “would of” used instead of “would have”. Each time I read it I get annoyed so I googled it and found out -as I expected- that it is an incorrect way to say “would have”. Now, there are a lot of brilliant slang words/expressions, so my question is, why do people use this one? It’s so annoying to read, stupid and clearly wrong, it is pointless , why did they came up with this expression?





Edit: I don't think my question is a duplicate as I didn't ask how can somebody use it (since I know it's incorrect and I know that I can use it with commas giving it a different meaning) but I asked why and how people came up with this expression.










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  • 22





    Your ears are deceiving you. In most (maybe all) varieties of English, in rapid speech "would have" and "would of" are 100% indistinguishable. Nobody is "saying" something incorrect. But spelling, being part of the invented and learnt technology called "writing" (and thus almost entirely different from the natural faculty called "language") is often imperfectly learnt - especially when the rules of spelling make a distinction which is not there in the real (spoken) language.

    – Colin Fine
    yesterday






  • 11





    Consider that it's "would 'ave". Some people know this and realize that "would have" is the unabbreviated form, while others, probably as a child, heard "would 'ave" and took it to be "would of", and thus say and write "would of".

    – Hot Licks
    yesterday






  • 23





    @ColinFine: I disagree. You're right that they're nearly indistinguishable, but as a result, there's a lot of people who learned it wrong, and now say and type "would of".

    – Mooing Duck
    yesterday








  • 6





    @Marybnq - As a non-native speaker you probably were not speaking English for 5 years before you learned how to read/write it. In fact, you may even have been exposed to written English before you learned to speak it.

    – Hot Licks
    yesterday






  • 11





    @Marybnq - Actually, "would've" and "would of" are virtually indistinguishable.

    – Hot Licks
    yesterday


















22















I often read the expression “would of” used instead of “would have”. Each time I read it I get annoyed so I googled it and found out -as I expected- that it is an incorrect way to say “would have”. Now, there are a lot of brilliant slang words/expressions, so my question is, why do people use this one? It’s so annoying to read, stupid and clearly wrong, it is pointless , why did they came up with this expression?





Edit: I don't think my question is a duplicate as I didn't ask how can somebody use it (since I know it's incorrect and I know that I can use it with commas giving it a different meaning) but I asked why and how people came up with this expression.










share|improve this question




















  • 22





    Your ears are deceiving you. In most (maybe all) varieties of English, in rapid speech "would have" and "would of" are 100% indistinguishable. Nobody is "saying" something incorrect. But spelling, being part of the invented and learnt technology called "writing" (and thus almost entirely different from the natural faculty called "language") is often imperfectly learnt - especially when the rules of spelling make a distinction which is not there in the real (spoken) language.

    – Colin Fine
    yesterday






  • 11





    Consider that it's "would 'ave". Some people know this and realize that "would have" is the unabbreviated form, while others, probably as a child, heard "would 'ave" and took it to be "would of", and thus say and write "would of".

    – Hot Licks
    yesterday






  • 23





    @ColinFine: I disagree. You're right that they're nearly indistinguishable, but as a result, there's a lot of people who learned it wrong, and now say and type "would of".

    – Mooing Duck
    yesterday








  • 6





    @Marybnq - As a non-native speaker you probably were not speaking English for 5 years before you learned how to read/write it. In fact, you may even have been exposed to written English before you learned to speak it.

    – Hot Licks
    yesterday






  • 11





    @Marybnq - Actually, "would've" and "would of" are virtually indistinguishable.

    – Hot Licks
    yesterday














22












22








22


5






I often read the expression “would of” used instead of “would have”. Each time I read it I get annoyed so I googled it and found out -as I expected- that it is an incorrect way to say “would have”. Now, there are a lot of brilliant slang words/expressions, so my question is, why do people use this one? It’s so annoying to read, stupid and clearly wrong, it is pointless , why did they came up with this expression?





Edit: I don't think my question is a duplicate as I didn't ask how can somebody use it (since I know it's incorrect and I know that I can use it with commas giving it a different meaning) but I asked why and how people came up with this expression.










share|improve this question
















I often read the expression “would of” used instead of “would have”. Each time I read it I get annoyed so I googled it and found out -as I expected- that it is an incorrect way to say “would have”. Now, there are a lot of brilliant slang words/expressions, so my question is, why do people use this one? It’s so annoying to read, stupid and clearly wrong, it is pointless , why did they came up with this expression?





Edit: I don't think my question is a duplicate as I didn't ask how can somebody use it (since I know it's incorrect and I know that I can use it with commas giving it a different meaning) but I asked why and how people came up with this expression.







word-choice etymology expressions






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edited 7 hours ago







Marybnq

















asked yesterday









MarybnqMarybnq

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371113








  • 22





    Your ears are deceiving you. In most (maybe all) varieties of English, in rapid speech "would have" and "would of" are 100% indistinguishable. Nobody is "saying" something incorrect. But spelling, being part of the invented and learnt technology called "writing" (and thus almost entirely different from the natural faculty called "language") is often imperfectly learnt - especially when the rules of spelling make a distinction which is not there in the real (spoken) language.

    – Colin Fine
    yesterday






  • 11





    Consider that it's "would 'ave". Some people know this and realize that "would have" is the unabbreviated form, while others, probably as a child, heard "would 'ave" and took it to be "would of", and thus say and write "would of".

    – Hot Licks
    yesterday






  • 23





    @ColinFine: I disagree. You're right that they're nearly indistinguishable, but as a result, there's a lot of people who learned it wrong, and now say and type "would of".

    – Mooing Duck
    yesterday








  • 6





    @Marybnq - As a non-native speaker you probably were not speaking English for 5 years before you learned how to read/write it. In fact, you may even have been exposed to written English before you learned to speak it.

    – Hot Licks
    yesterday






  • 11





    @Marybnq - Actually, "would've" and "would of" are virtually indistinguishable.

    – Hot Licks
    yesterday














  • 22





    Your ears are deceiving you. In most (maybe all) varieties of English, in rapid speech "would have" and "would of" are 100% indistinguishable. Nobody is "saying" something incorrect. But spelling, being part of the invented and learnt technology called "writing" (and thus almost entirely different from the natural faculty called "language") is often imperfectly learnt - especially when the rules of spelling make a distinction which is not there in the real (spoken) language.

    – Colin Fine
    yesterday






  • 11





    Consider that it's "would 'ave". Some people know this and realize that "would have" is the unabbreviated form, while others, probably as a child, heard "would 'ave" and took it to be "would of", and thus say and write "would of".

    – Hot Licks
    yesterday






  • 23





    @ColinFine: I disagree. You're right that they're nearly indistinguishable, but as a result, there's a lot of people who learned it wrong, and now say and type "would of".

    – Mooing Duck
    yesterday








  • 6





    @Marybnq - As a non-native speaker you probably were not speaking English for 5 years before you learned how to read/write it. In fact, you may even have been exposed to written English before you learned to speak it.

    – Hot Licks
    yesterday






  • 11





    @Marybnq - Actually, "would've" and "would of" are virtually indistinguishable.

    – Hot Licks
    yesterday








22




22





Your ears are deceiving you. In most (maybe all) varieties of English, in rapid speech "would have" and "would of" are 100% indistinguishable. Nobody is "saying" something incorrect. But spelling, being part of the invented and learnt technology called "writing" (and thus almost entirely different from the natural faculty called "language") is often imperfectly learnt - especially when the rules of spelling make a distinction which is not there in the real (spoken) language.

– Colin Fine
yesterday





Your ears are deceiving you. In most (maybe all) varieties of English, in rapid speech "would have" and "would of" are 100% indistinguishable. Nobody is "saying" something incorrect. But spelling, being part of the invented and learnt technology called "writing" (and thus almost entirely different from the natural faculty called "language") is often imperfectly learnt - especially when the rules of spelling make a distinction which is not there in the real (spoken) language.

– Colin Fine
yesterday




11




11





Consider that it's "would 'ave". Some people know this and realize that "would have" is the unabbreviated form, while others, probably as a child, heard "would 'ave" and took it to be "would of", and thus say and write "would of".

– Hot Licks
yesterday





Consider that it's "would 'ave". Some people know this and realize that "would have" is the unabbreviated form, while others, probably as a child, heard "would 'ave" and took it to be "would of", and thus say and write "would of".

– Hot Licks
yesterday




23




23





@ColinFine: I disagree. You're right that they're nearly indistinguishable, but as a result, there's a lot of people who learned it wrong, and now say and type "would of".

– Mooing Duck
yesterday







@ColinFine: I disagree. You're right that they're nearly indistinguishable, but as a result, there's a lot of people who learned it wrong, and now say and type "would of".

– Mooing Duck
yesterday






6




6





@Marybnq - As a non-native speaker you probably were not speaking English for 5 years before you learned how to read/write it. In fact, you may even have been exposed to written English before you learned to speak it.

– Hot Licks
yesterday





@Marybnq - As a non-native speaker you probably were not speaking English for 5 years before you learned how to read/write it. In fact, you may even have been exposed to written English before you learned to speak it.

– Hot Licks
yesterday




11




11





@Marybnq - Actually, "would've" and "would of" are virtually indistinguishable.

– Hot Licks
yesterday





@Marybnq - Actually, "would've" and "would of" are virtually indistinguishable.

– Hot Licks
yesterday










7 Answers
7






active

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71














Correction: what annoys you is people writing “would of” when they are saying /ˈwʊdəv/, which is the standard pronunciation of the contraction would’ve.



The vowel of the preposition “of” is almost always reduced in actual speech, yielding /əv/. Thus “would’ve” and “would of” are homophones. So no surprise that some people spell it that way, even though it makes no grammatical sense.



Would’ve can be even further reduced to /ˈwʊdə/, which some people spell woulda. The same goes for the modals, shoulda, coulda, musta.



Spelling as it sounds can yield amusing results:




Along the way the details of his past are sordid out and he realizes that what he once thought about his parents isn't the truth at all. — Amazon.com Review.




A speaker of British English, of course, would never write sorted in this manner, but with an American flapped t, it’s a perfect fit.






share|improve this answer



















  • 34





    In writing, I accept "woulda" as a dialect. I do not accept "would of", because it is clearly an error.

    – Rusty Core
    yesterday






  • 1





    It's up to you, but I think IPA looks better in code blocks.

    – Azor Ahai
    yesterday






  • 7





    +1 for sordid out

    – Orangesandlemons
    14 hours ago






  • 2





    People write their for there, this is the same deal. These are homophones as KarlG says.

    – Lambie
    10 hours ago






  • 3





    @tchrist "[woulda] is clearly a misspelling of would've just as much as would of is." — not to me. I perceive the first as intentional mangling of written language, hopefully by someone who knows how to write correctly if needed. The latter to me is clearly a mistake made by someone who picks sounds from the air and puts them to paper so to speak. Similarly, I accept cursing from someone who knows how to speak eloquently, and I despise those who use curse words as everyday interjections.

    – Rusty Core
    8 hours ago





















18














"Would of" is a garden variety malapropism (Wikipedia - Malapropism).



Some more interesting malapropisms are "tantrum bicycle" instead of tandem bicycle, "Alcoholics Unanimous" instead of Alcoholics Anonymous, "a vast suppository of information" instead of repository of information, "Miss-Marple-ism" instead of malapropism¹ and Mike Tyson's "I might fade into Bolivian" instead of oblivion (these are all borrowed from that same Wikipedia article).



The basic idea is that no one has perfect knowledge of any language, not even the ones they speak natively. We hear things incorrectly and then repeat the mistake.



We know that English speakers often contract "would have" into "would've." This is pronounced identically (in some dialects) to "would of," so the mistake is easy to make.





¹ This one seems too perfect to be a complete mistake. The "miss" sound is totally absent from "malapropism" and the term, for those who didn't follow the Wikipedia link, comes from a character named Mrs Malaprop. It seems unlikely that the supposed speaker of "Miss-Marple-ism" wasn't aware, at least subconsciously, of the correct word, or at least its origins. In which case, this neologism may really be an eggcorn.






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  • 6





    A popular example of this is the "it's a dog-eat-dog world" being written "it's a doggy dog world."

    – barbecue
    yesterday






  • 6





    I would not call it a malapropism, because those are errors of (real, spoken) language. These are utterly different from errors in using the learnt technology called writing.

    – Colin Fine
    yesterday






  • 2





    @ColinFine not sure I follow. Are you saying that the term "malapropism" can't be used for written language? That seems pretty far-fetched to me. Got a citation?

    – barbecue
    yesterday






  • 1





    Though I've never read any of Miss Marple, I would take "Miss-Marple-ism" to be an intentional reference to the way Miss Marple spoke.

    – Hot Licks
    14 hours ago






  • 8





    I would argue that this is less a case of a malapropism, and more of a mondegreen - "Would have" was contracted to "Would've", and then misheard as "would of"

    – Chronocidal
    14 hours ago



















5














This is probably a case of hearing a phrase and assuming/guessing how it should be spelled. Would have can be abbreviated as would've, and in rapid conversation, the pronunciation of "would've" is basically the same as "would of."






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    2














    Great question. I also get annoyed when I see this phrase, especially from people who should know better. At one of my old jobs year ago, I worked with an account manager who actually used that phrase in an e-mail, saying something like "I should of known better". Yes, an account manager "should of" had a better education to know proper grammar... or at least know that's not a phrase used by professionals.



    Even though the phrase might be pronounced and heard as "should of" (or "would of" or "could of"), there's no such phrase in written English. No school that I've heard of teaches this phrase and basic rules of grammar "abbreviate the word have as 've".
    And writing "should of" takes just as many characters to write as "should've", so it's not like it's text-speak.



    In my opinion, it's people being stupid, ignorant, or trying to be funny/ hip/ trendy by using the wrong phrase. Then other people see it and want to be in on the joke, so they use it also.






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    John is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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      This has been answered better than I could even aspire to. However, I thought it would be interesting to realise that the same people who use (whether in speech or writing) the term 'would of' also constantly, and usually, does the same with 'could of', 'there' - instead of 'their' and 'then' instead of 'than'. This makes it hard for me to believe that it is mondegreen, since these are basic English building blocks, and no school would teach this to even allow for misinterpretation or mishearing. Surely pupils must also write, and teachers check the spelling?



      To me, it's interesting, because it is commonly found on forums and popular social video website comments and as such, the perpetrators do not deal well with friendly correction from others :-)






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      Marlon van der Linde is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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      • 1





        You mention speech. It is completely impossible in speech to distinguish the unstressed form of have used between a modal and the past participle from the word of: these two are perfect homophones.

        – tchrist
        9 hours ago











      • This does not provide an answer to the question. Once you have sufficient reputation you will be able to comment on any post; instead, provide answers that don't require clarification from the asker. - From Review

        – Cascabel
        9 hours ago



















      0














      The real question here seems to be not "how does this error happen?", because it's easy to see how you could mistake two similar-sounding words, but rather "how is it possible that this glaring error has become so ubiquitous in the last few years, even in texts written by native speakers and people in higher education?"



      People are now much more likely to seek news, information and entertainment on social media, blogs and sites with user-generated content like Stack Exchange, instead of in books, magazines and newspapers. (Whether this evolution is inherently good or bad is a different discussion). This means that people are now regularly exposed to non-professional writing, with no editor between the writer and the "publish" button. The fact that writers and news media are increasingly building a social media and internet presence, and bloggers and social media content creators are becoming more professional, is also blurring the line between professional and non-professional writing.



      As a result of this, errors in spelling or grammar can spread rapidly, much like other forms of misinformation. Unless there is a turnaround in reading habits, or a new concept of reputable sources of language use in the online world emerges, or schools start to specifically target this problem, I cannot see the phenomenon of "viral" language errors going away any time soon.






      share|improve this answer
























      • See also: english.stackexchange.com/questions/15081/…

        – m69
        10 hours ago











      • Schools do not need to target this problem specifically. They simply need to teach grammar.

        – Rusty Core
        4 hours ago



















      0














      What most of you are missing is that "of" is preposition, and prepositions are slippery beasts. The "rules" for prepositions are complex and, for most people, in large part incomprehensible.



      While an English purist would quickly cry "foul!", someone with, say, a 5th-grade education might easily believe (without applying much critical thought) that, in "If I had the time I would of eaten sooner", "of eaten sooner" is a prepositional phrase which somehow modifies "I would".



      They are speaking/writing without applying an English teacher's "starch", and to them it makes perfect sense. After all, that's how (they think) their parents speak.






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        7 Answers
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        7 Answers
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        71














        Correction: what annoys you is people writing “would of” when they are saying /ˈwʊdəv/, which is the standard pronunciation of the contraction would’ve.



        The vowel of the preposition “of” is almost always reduced in actual speech, yielding /əv/. Thus “would’ve” and “would of” are homophones. So no surprise that some people spell it that way, even though it makes no grammatical sense.



        Would’ve can be even further reduced to /ˈwʊdə/, which some people spell woulda. The same goes for the modals, shoulda, coulda, musta.



        Spelling as it sounds can yield amusing results:




        Along the way the details of his past are sordid out and he realizes that what he once thought about his parents isn't the truth at all. — Amazon.com Review.




        A speaker of British English, of course, would never write sorted in this manner, but with an American flapped t, it’s a perfect fit.






        share|improve this answer



















        • 34





          In writing, I accept "woulda" as a dialect. I do not accept "would of", because it is clearly an error.

          – Rusty Core
          yesterday






        • 1





          It's up to you, but I think IPA looks better in code blocks.

          – Azor Ahai
          yesterday






        • 7





          +1 for sordid out

          – Orangesandlemons
          14 hours ago






        • 2





          People write their for there, this is the same deal. These are homophones as KarlG says.

          – Lambie
          10 hours ago






        • 3





          @tchrist "[woulda] is clearly a misspelling of would've just as much as would of is." — not to me. I perceive the first as intentional mangling of written language, hopefully by someone who knows how to write correctly if needed. The latter to me is clearly a mistake made by someone who picks sounds from the air and puts them to paper so to speak. Similarly, I accept cursing from someone who knows how to speak eloquently, and I despise those who use curse words as everyday interjections.

          – Rusty Core
          8 hours ago


















        71














        Correction: what annoys you is people writing “would of” when they are saying /ˈwʊdəv/, which is the standard pronunciation of the contraction would’ve.



        The vowel of the preposition “of” is almost always reduced in actual speech, yielding /əv/. Thus “would’ve” and “would of” are homophones. So no surprise that some people spell it that way, even though it makes no grammatical sense.



        Would’ve can be even further reduced to /ˈwʊdə/, which some people spell woulda. The same goes for the modals, shoulda, coulda, musta.



        Spelling as it sounds can yield amusing results:




        Along the way the details of his past are sordid out and he realizes that what he once thought about his parents isn't the truth at all. — Amazon.com Review.




        A speaker of British English, of course, would never write sorted in this manner, but with an American flapped t, it’s a perfect fit.






        share|improve this answer



















        • 34





          In writing, I accept "woulda" as a dialect. I do not accept "would of", because it is clearly an error.

          – Rusty Core
          yesterday






        • 1





          It's up to you, but I think IPA looks better in code blocks.

          – Azor Ahai
          yesterday






        • 7





          +1 for sordid out

          – Orangesandlemons
          14 hours ago






        • 2





          People write their for there, this is the same deal. These are homophones as KarlG says.

          – Lambie
          10 hours ago






        • 3





          @tchrist "[woulda] is clearly a misspelling of would've just as much as would of is." — not to me. I perceive the first as intentional mangling of written language, hopefully by someone who knows how to write correctly if needed. The latter to me is clearly a mistake made by someone who picks sounds from the air and puts them to paper so to speak. Similarly, I accept cursing from someone who knows how to speak eloquently, and I despise those who use curse words as everyday interjections.

          – Rusty Core
          8 hours ago
















        71












        71








        71







        Correction: what annoys you is people writing “would of” when they are saying /ˈwʊdəv/, which is the standard pronunciation of the contraction would’ve.



        The vowel of the preposition “of” is almost always reduced in actual speech, yielding /əv/. Thus “would’ve” and “would of” are homophones. So no surprise that some people spell it that way, even though it makes no grammatical sense.



        Would’ve can be even further reduced to /ˈwʊdə/, which some people spell woulda. The same goes for the modals, shoulda, coulda, musta.



        Spelling as it sounds can yield amusing results:




        Along the way the details of his past are sordid out and he realizes that what he once thought about his parents isn't the truth at all. — Amazon.com Review.




        A speaker of British English, of course, would never write sorted in this manner, but with an American flapped t, it’s a perfect fit.






        share|improve this answer













        Correction: what annoys you is people writing “would of” when they are saying /ˈwʊdəv/, which is the standard pronunciation of the contraction would’ve.



        The vowel of the preposition “of” is almost always reduced in actual speech, yielding /əv/. Thus “would’ve” and “would of” are homophones. So no surprise that some people spell it that way, even though it makes no grammatical sense.



        Would’ve can be even further reduced to /ˈwʊdə/, which some people spell woulda. The same goes for the modals, shoulda, coulda, musta.



        Spelling as it sounds can yield amusing results:




        Along the way the details of his past are sordid out and he realizes that what he once thought about his parents isn't the truth at all. — Amazon.com Review.




        A speaker of British English, of course, would never write sorted in this manner, but with an American flapped t, it’s a perfect fit.







        share|improve this answer












        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer










        answered yesterday









        KarlGKarlG

        23.5k63563




        23.5k63563








        • 34





          In writing, I accept "woulda" as a dialect. I do not accept "would of", because it is clearly an error.

          – Rusty Core
          yesterday






        • 1





          It's up to you, but I think IPA looks better in code blocks.

          – Azor Ahai
          yesterday






        • 7





          +1 for sordid out

          – Orangesandlemons
          14 hours ago






        • 2





          People write their for there, this is the same deal. These are homophones as KarlG says.

          – Lambie
          10 hours ago






        • 3





          @tchrist "[woulda] is clearly a misspelling of would've just as much as would of is." — not to me. I perceive the first as intentional mangling of written language, hopefully by someone who knows how to write correctly if needed. The latter to me is clearly a mistake made by someone who picks sounds from the air and puts them to paper so to speak. Similarly, I accept cursing from someone who knows how to speak eloquently, and I despise those who use curse words as everyday interjections.

          – Rusty Core
          8 hours ago
















        • 34





          In writing, I accept "woulda" as a dialect. I do not accept "would of", because it is clearly an error.

          – Rusty Core
          yesterday






        • 1





          It's up to you, but I think IPA looks better in code blocks.

          – Azor Ahai
          yesterday






        • 7





          +1 for sordid out

          – Orangesandlemons
          14 hours ago






        • 2





          People write their for there, this is the same deal. These are homophones as KarlG says.

          – Lambie
          10 hours ago






        • 3





          @tchrist "[woulda] is clearly a misspelling of would've just as much as would of is." — not to me. I perceive the first as intentional mangling of written language, hopefully by someone who knows how to write correctly if needed. The latter to me is clearly a mistake made by someone who picks sounds from the air and puts them to paper so to speak. Similarly, I accept cursing from someone who knows how to speak eloquently, and I despise those who use curse words as everyday interjections.

          – Rusty Core
          8 hours ago










        34




        34





        In writing, I accept "woulda" as a dialect. I do not accept "would of", because it is clearly an error.

        – Rusty Core
        yesterday





        In writing, I accept "woulda" as a dialect. I do not accept "would of", because it is clearly an error.

        – Rusty Core
        yesterday




        1




        1





        It's up to you, but I think IPA looks better in code blocks.

        – Azor Ahai
        yesterday





        It's up to you, but I think IPA looks better in code blocks.

        – Azor Ahai
        yesterday




        7




        7





        +1 for sordid out

        – Orangesandlemons
        14 hours ago





        +1 for sordid out

        – Orangesandlemons
        14 hours ago




        2




        2





        People write their for there, this is the same deal. These are homophones as KarlG says.

        – Lambie
        10 hours ago





        People write their for there, this is the same deal. These are homophones as KarlG says.

        – Lambie
        10 hours ago




        3




        3





        @tchrist "[woulda] is clearly a misspelling of would've just as much as would of is." — not to me. I perceive the first as intentional mangling of written language, hopefully by someone who knows how to write correctly if needed. The latter to me is clearly a mistake made by someone who picks sounds from the air and puts them to paper so to speak. Similarly, I accept cursing from someone who knows how to speak eloquently, and I despise those who use curse words as everyday interjections.

        – Rusty Core
        8 hours ago







        @tchrist "[woulda] is clearly a misspelling of would've just as much as would of is." — not to me. I perceive the first as intentional mangling of written language, hopefully by someone who knows how to write correctly if needed. The latter to me is clearly a mistake made by someone who picks sounds from the air and puts them to paper so to speak. Similarly, I accept cursing from someone who knows how to speak eloquently, and I despise those who use curse words as everyday interjections.

        – Rusty Core
        8 hours ago















        18














        "Would of" is a garden variety malapropism (Wikipedia - Malapropism).



        Some more interesting malapropisms are "tantrum bicycle" instead of tandem bicycle, "Alcoholics Unanimous" instead of Alcoholics Anonymous, "a vast suppository of information" instead of repository of information, "Miss-Marple-ism" instead of malapropism¹ and Mike Tyson's "I might fade into Bolivian" instead of oblivion (these are all borrowed from that same Wikipedia article).



        The basic idea is that no one has perfect knowledge of any language, not even the ones they speak natively. We hear things incorrectly and then repeat the mistake.



        We know that English speakers often contract "would have" into "would've." This is pronounced identically (in some dialects) to "would of," so the mistake is easy to make.





        ¹ This one seems too perfect to be a complete mistake. The "miss" sound is totally absent from "malapropism" and the term, for those who didn't follow the Wikipedia link, comes from a character named Mrs Malaprop. It seems unlikely that the supposed speaker of "Miss-Marple-ism" wasn't aware, at least subconsciously, of the correct word, or at least its origins. In which case, this neologism may really be an eggcorn.






        share|improve this answer





















        • 6





          A popular example of this is the "it's a dog-eat-dog world" being written "it's a doggy dog world."

          – barbecue
          yesterday






        • 6





          I would not call it a malapropism, because those are errors of (real, spoken) language. These are utterly different from errors in using the learnt technology called writing.

          – Colin Fine
          yesterday






        • 2





          @ColinFine not sure I follow. Are you saying that the term "malapropism" can't be used for written language? That seems pretty far-fetched to me. Got a citation?

          – barbecue
          yesterday






        • 1





          Though I've never read any of Miss Marple, I would take "Miss-Marple-ism" to be an intentional reference to the way Miss Marple spoke.

          – Hot Licks
          14 hours ago






        • 8





          I would argue that this is less a case of a malapropism, and more of a mondegreen - "Would have" was contracted to "Would've", and then misheard as "would of"

          – Chronocidal
          14 hours ago
















        18














        "Would of" is a garden variety malapropism (Wikipedia - Malapropism).



        Some more interesting malapropisms are "tantrum bicycle" instead of tandem bicycle, "Alcoholics Unanimous" instead of Alcoholics Anonymous, "a vast suppository of information" instead of repository of information, "Miss-Marple-ism" instead of malapropism¹ and Mike Tyson's "I might fade into Bolivian" instead of oblivion (these are all borrowed from that same Wikipedia article).



        The basic idea is that no one has perfect knowledge of any language, not even the ones they speak natively. We hear things incorrectly and then repeat the mistake.



        We know that English speakers often contract "would have" into "would've." This is pronounced identically (in some dialects) to "would of," so the mistake is easy to make.





        ¹ This one seems too perfect to be a complete mistake. The "miss" sound is totally absent from "malapropism" and the term, for those who didn't follow the Wikipedia link, comes from a character named Mrs Malaprop. It seems unlikely that the supposed speaker of "Miss-Marple-ism" wasn't aware, at least subconsciously, of the correct word, or at least its origins. In which case, this neologism may really be an eggcorn.






        share|improve this answer





















        • 6





          A popular example of this is the "it's a dog-eat-dog world" being written "it's a doggy dog world."

          – barbecue
          yesterday






        • 6





          I would not call it a malapropism, because those are errors of (real, spoken) language. These are utterly different from errors in using the learnt technology called writing.

          – Colin Fine
          yesterday






        • 2





          @ColinFine not sure I follow. Are you saying that the term "malapropism" can't be used for written language? That seems pretty far-fetched to me. Got a citation?

          – barbecue
          yesterday






        • 1





          Though I've never read any of Miss Marple, I would take "Miss-Marple-ism" to be an intentional reference to the way Miss Marple spoke.

          – Hot Licks
          14 hours ago






        • 8





          I would argue that this is less a case of a malapropism, and more of a mondegreen - "Would have" was contracted to "Would've", and then misheard as "would of"

          – Chronocidal
          14 hours ago














        18












        18








        18







        "Would of" is a garden variety malapropism (Wikipedia - Malapropism).



        Some more interesting malapropisms are "tantrum bicycle" instead of tandem bicycle, "Alcoholics Unanimous" instead of Alcoholics Anonymous, "a vast suppository of information" instead of repository of information, "Miss-Marple-ism" instead of malapropism¹ and Mike Tyson's "I might fade into Bolivian" instead of oblivion (these are all borrowed from that same Wikipedia article).



        The basic idea is that no one has perfect knowledge of any language, not even the ones they speak natively. We hear things incorrectly and then repeat the mistake.



        We know that English speakers often contract "would have" into "would've." This is pronounced identically (in some dialects) to "would of," so the mistake is easy to make.





        ¹ This one seems too perfect to be a complete mistake. The "miss" sound is totally absent from "malapropism" and the term, for those who didn't follow the Wikipedia link, comes from a character named Mrs Malaprop. It seems unlikely that the supposed speaker of "Miss-Marple-ism" wasn't aware, at least subconsciously, of the correct word, or at least its origins. In which case, this neologism may really be an eggcorn.






        share|improve this answer















        "Would of" is a garden variety malapropism (Wikipedia - Malapropism).



        Some more interesting malapropisms are "tantrum bicycle" instead of tandem bicycle, "Alcoholics Unanimous" instead of Alcoholics Anonymous, "a vast suppository of information" instead of repository of information, "Miss-Marple-ism" instead of malapropism¹ and Mike Tyson's "I might fade into Bolivian" instead of oblivion (these are all borrowed from that same Wikipedia article).



        The basic idea is that no one has perfect knowledge of any language, not even the ones they speak natively. We hear things incorrectly and then repeat the mistake.



        We know that English speakers often contract "would have" into "would've." This is pronounced identically (in some dialects) to "would of," so the mistake is easy to make.





        ¹ This one seems too perfect to be a complete mistake. The "miss" sound is totally absent from "malapropism" and the term, for those who didn't follow the Wikipedia link, comes from a character named Mrs Malaprop. It seems unlikely that the supposed speaker of "Miss-Marple-ism" wasn't aware, at least subconsciously, of the correct word, or at least its origins. In which case, this neologism may really be an eggcorn.







        share|improve this answer














        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer








        edited 15 hours ago









        Toby Speight

        1,078715




        1,078715










        answered yesterday









        JuhaszJuhasz

        3,5341815




        3,5341815








        • 6





          A popular example of this is the "it's a dog-eat-dog world" being written "it's a doggy dog world."

          – barbecue
          yesterday






        • 6





          I would not call it a malapropism, because those are errors of (real, spoken) language. These are utterly different from errors in using the learnt technology called writing.

          – Colin Fine
          yesterday






        • 2





          @ColinFine not sure I follow. Are you saying that the term "malapropism" can't be used for written language? That seems pretty far-fetched to me. Got a citation?

          – barbecue
          yesterday






        • 1





          Though I've never read any of Miss Marple, I would take "Miss-Marple-ism" to be an intentional reference to the way Miss Marple spoke.

          – Hot Licks
          14 hours ago






        • 8





          I would argue that this is less a case of a malapropism, and more of a mondegreen - "Would have" was contracted to "Would've", and then misheard as "would of"

          – Chronocidal
          14 hours ago














        • 6





          A popular example of this is the "it's a dog-eat-dog world" being written "it's a doggy dog world."

          – barbecue
          yesterday






        • 6





          I would not call it a malapropism, because those are errors of (real, spoken) language. These are utterly different from errors in using the learnt technology called writing.

          – Colin Fine
          yesterday






        • 2





          @ColinFine not sure I follow. Are you saying that the term "malapropism" can't be used for written language? That seems pretty far-fetched to me. Got a citation?

          – barbecue
          yesterday






        • 1





          Though I've never read any of Miss Marple, I would take "Miss-Marple-ism" to be an intentional reference to the way Miss Marple spoke.

          – Hot Licks
          14 hours ago






        • 8





          I would argue that this is less a case of a malapropism, and more of a mondegreen - "Would have" was contracted to "Would've", and then misheard as "would of"

          – Chronocidal
          14 hours ago








        6




        6





        A popular example of this is the "it's a dog-eat-dog world" being written "it's a doggy dog world."

        – barbecue
        yesterday





        A popular example of this is the "it's a dog-eat-dog world" being written "it's a doggy dog world."

        – barbecue
        yesterday




        6




        6





        I would not call it a malapropism, because those are errors of (real, spoken) language. These are utterly different from errors in using the learnt technology called writing.

        – Colin Fine
        yesterday





        I would not call it a malapropism, because those are errors of (real, spoken) language. These are utterly different from errors in using the learnt technology called writing.

        – Colin Fine
        yesterday




        2




        2





        @ColinFine not sure I follow. Are you saying that the term "malapropism" can't be used for written language? That seems pretty far-fetched to me. Got a citation?

        – barbecue
        yesterday





        @ColinFine not sure I follow. Are you saying that the term "malapropism" can't be used for written language? That seems pretty far-fetched to me. Got a citation?

        – barbecue
        yesterday




        1




        1





        Though I've never read any of Miss Marple, I would take "Miss-Marple-ism" to be an intentional reference to the way Miss Marple spoke.

        – Hot Licks
        14 hours ago





        Though I've never read any of Miss Marple, I would take "Miss-Marple-ism" to be an intentional reference to the way Miss Marple spoke.

        – Hot Licks
        14 hours ago




        8




        8





        I would argue that this is less a case of a malapropism, and more of a mondegreen - "Would have" was contracted to "Would've", and then misheard as "would of"

        – Chronocidal
        14 hours ago





        I would argue that this is less a case of a malapropism, and more of a mondegreen - "Would have" was contracted to "Would've", and then misheard as "would of"

        – Chronocidal
        14 hours ago











        5














        This is probably a case of hearing a phrase and assuming/guessing how it should be spelled. Would have can be abbreviated as would've, and in rapid conversation, the pronunciation of "would've" is basically the same as "would of."






        share|improve this answer




























          5














          This is probably a case of hearing a phrase and assuming/guessing how it should be spelled. Would have can be abbreviated as would've, and in rapid conversation, the pronunciation of "would've" is basically the same as "would of."






          share|improve this answer


























            5












            5








            5







            This is probably a case of hearing a phrase and assuming/guessing how it should be spelled. Would have can be abbreviated as would've, and in rapid conversation, the pronunciation of "would've" is basically the same as "would of."






            share|improve this answer













            This is probably a case of hearing a phrase and assuming/guessing how it should be spelled. Would have can be abbreviated as would've, and in rapid conversation, the pronunciation of "would've" is basically the same as "would of."







            share|improve this answer












            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer










            answered yesterday









            barbecuebarbecue

            4,5761128




            4,5761128























                2














                Great question. I also get annoyed when I see this phrase, especially from people who should know better. At one of my old jobs year ago, I worked with an account manager who actually used that phrase in an e-mail, saying something like "I should of known better". Yes, an account manager "should of" had a better education to know proper grammar... or at least know that's not a phrase used by professionals.



                Even though the phrase might be pronounced and heard as "should of" (or "would of" or "could of"), there's no such phrase in written English. No school that I've heard of teaches this phrase and basic rules of grammar "abbreviate the word have as 've".
                And writing "should of" takes just as many characters to write as "should've", so it's not like it's text-speak.



                In my opinion, it's people being stupid, ignorant, or trying to be funny/ hip/ trendy by using the wrong phrase. Then other people see it and want to be in on the joke, so they use it also.






                share|improve this answer








                New contributor




                John is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                Check out our Code of Conduct.

























                  2














                  Great question. I also get annoyed when I see this phrase, especially from people who should know better. At one of my old jobs year ago, I worked with an account manager who actually used that phrase in an e-mail, saying something like "I should of known better". Yes, an account manager "should of" had a better education to know proper grammar... or at least know that's not a phrase used by professionals.



                  Even though the phrase might be pronounced and heard as "should of" (or "would of" or "could of"), there's no such phrase in written English. No school that I've heard of teaches this phrase and basic rules of grammar "abbreviate the word have as 've".
                  And writing "should of" takes just as many characters to write as "should've", so it's not like it's text-speak.



                  In my opinion, it's people being stupid, ignorant, or trying to be funny/ hip/ trendy by using the wrong phrase. Then other people see it and want to be in on the joke, so they use it also.






                  share|improve this answer








                  New contributor




                  John is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                  Check out our Code of Conduct.























                    2












                    2








                    2







                    Great question. I also get annoyed when I see this phrase, especially from people who should know better. At one of my old jobs year ago, I worked with an account manager who actually used that phrase in an e-mail, saying something like "I should of known better". Yes, an account manager "should of" had a better education to know proper grammar... or at least know that's not a phrase used by professionals.



                    Even though the phrase might be pronounced and heard as "should of" (or "would of" or "could of"), there's no such phrase in written English. No school that I've heard of teaches this phrase and basic rules of grammar "abbreviate the word have as 've".
                    And writing "should of" takes just as many characters to write as "should've", so it's not like it's text-speak.



                    In my opinion, it's people being stupid, ignorant, or trying to be funny/ hip/ trendy by using the wrong phrase. Then other people see it and want to be in on the joke, so they use it also.






                    share|improve this answer








                    New contributor




                    John is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                    Check out our Code of Conduct.










                    Great question. I also get annoyed when I see this phrase, especially from people who should know better. At one of my old jobs year ago, I worked with an account manager who actually used that phrase in an e-mail, saying something like "I should of known better". Yes, an account manager "should of" had a better education to know proper grammar... or at least know that's not a phrase used by professionals.



                    Even though the phrase might be pronounced and heard as "should of" (or "would of" or "could of"), there's no such phrase in written English. No school that I've heard of teaches this phrase and basic rules of grammar "abbreviate the word have as 've".
                    And writing "should of" takes just as many characters to write as "should've", so it's not like it's text-speak.



                    In my opinion, it's people being stupid, ignorant, or trying to be funny/ hip/ trendy by using the wrong phrase. Then other people see it and want to be in on the joke, so they use it also.







                    share|improve this answer








                    New contributor




                    John is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                    Check out our Code of Conduct.









                    share|improve this answer



                    share|improve this answer






                    New contributor




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                    answered 13 hours ago









                    JohnJohn

                    291




                    291




                    New contributor




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                    New contributor





                    John is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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                    John is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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                        0














                        This has been answered better than I could even aspire to. However, I thought it would be interesting to realise that the same people who use (whether in speech or writing) the term 'would of' also constantly, and usually, does the same with 'could of', 'there' - instead of 'their' and 'then' instead of 'than'. This makes it hard for me to believe that it is mondegreen, since these are basic English building blocks, and no school would teach this to even allow for misinterpretation or mishearing. Surely pupils must also write, and teachers check the spelling?



                        To me, it's interesting, because it is commonly found on forums and popular social video website comments and as such, the perpetrators do not deal well with friendly correction from others :-)






                        share|improve this answer








                        New contributor




                        Marlon van der Linde is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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                        • 1





                          You mention speech. It is completely impossible in speech to distinguish the unstressed form of have used between a modal and the past participle from the word of: these two are perfect homophones.

                          – tchrist
                          9 hours ago











                        • This does not provide an answer to the question. Once you have sufficient reputation you will be able to comment on any post; instead, provide answers that don't require clarification from the asker. - From Review

                          – Cascabel
                          9 hours ago
















                        0














                        This has been answered better than I could even aspire to. However, I thought it would be interesting to realise that the same people who use (whether in speech or writing) the term 'would of' also constantly, and usually, does the same with 'could of', 'there' - instead of 'their' and 'then' instead of 'than'. This makes it hard for me to believe that it is mondegreen, since these are basic English building blocks, and no school would teach this to even allow for misinterpretation or mishearing. Surely pupils must also write, and teachers check the spelling?



                        To me, it's interesting, because it is commonly found on forums and popular social video website comments and as such, the perpetrators do not deal well with friendly correction from others :-)






                        share|improve this answer








                        New contributor




                        Marlon van der Linde is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                        Check out our Code of Conduct.
















                        • 1





                          You mention speech. It is completely impossible in speech to distinguish the unstressed form of have used between a modal and the past participle from the word of: these two are perfect homophones.

                          – tchrist
                          9 hours ago











                        • This does not provide an answer to the question. Once you have sufficient reputation you will be able to comment on any post; instead, provide answers that don't require clarification from the asker. - From Review

                          – Cascabel
                          9 hours ago














                        0












                        0








                        0







                        This has been answered better than I could even aspire to. However, I thought it would be interesting to realise that the same people who use (whether in speech or writing) the term 'would of' also constantly, and usually, does the same with 'could of', 'there' - instead of 'their' and 'then' instead of 'than'. This makes it hard for me to believe that it is mondegreen, since these are basic English building blocks, and no school would teach this to even allow for misinterpretation or mishearing. Surely pupils must also write, and teachers check the spelling?



                        To me, it's interesting, because it is commonly found on forums and popular social video website comments and as such, the perpetrators do not deal well with friendly correction from others :-)






                        share|improve this answer








                        New contributor




                        Marlon van der Linde is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                        Check out our Code of Conduct.










                        This has been answered better than I could even aspire to. However, I thought it would be interesting to realise that the same people who use (whether in speech or writing) the term 'would of' also constantly, and usually, does the same with 'could of', 'there' - instead of 'their' and 'then' instead of 'than'. This makes it hard for me to believe that it is mondegreen, since these are basic English building blocks, and no school would teach this to even allow for misinterpretation or mishearing. Surely pupils must also write, and teachers check the spelling?



                        To me, it's interesting, because it is commonly found on forums and popular social video website comments and as such, the perpetrators do not deal well with friendly correction from others :-)







                        share|improve this answer








                        New contributor




                        Marlon van der Linde is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                        Check out our Code of Conduct.









                        share|improve this answer



                        share|improve this answer






                        New contributor




                        Marlon van der Linde is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                        Check out our Code of Conduct.









                        answered 11 hours ago









                        Marlon van der LindeMarlon van der Linde

                        1011




                        1011




                        New contributor




                        Marlon van der Linde is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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                        New contributor





                        Marlon van der Linde is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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                        Marlon van der Linde is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                        Check out our Code of Conduct.








                        • 1





                          You mention speech. It is completely impossible in speech to distinguish the unstressed form of have used between a modal and the past participle from the word of: these two are perfect homophones.

                          – tchrist
                          9 hours ago











                        • This does not provide an answer to the question. Once you have sufficient reputation you will be able to comment on any post; instead, provide answers that don't require clarification from the asker. - From Review

                          – Cascabel
                          9 hours ago














                        • 1





                          You mention speech. It is completely impossible in speech to distinguish the unstressed form of have used between a modal and the past participle from the word of: these two are perfect homophones.

                          – tchrist
                          9 hours ago











                        • This does not provide an answer to the question. Once you have sufficient reputation you will be able to comment on any post; instead, provide answers that don't require clarification from the asker. - From Review

                          – Cascabel
                          9 hours ago








                        1




                        1





                        You mention speech. It is completely impossible in speech to distinguish the unstressed form of have used between a modal and the past participle from the word of: these two are perfect homophones.

                        – tchrist
                        9 hours ago





                        You mention speech. It is completely impossible in speech to distinguish the unstressed form of have used between a modal and the past participle from the word of: these two are perfect homophones.

                        – tchrist
                        9 hours ago













                        This does not provide an answer to the question. Once you have sufficient reputation you will be able to comment on any post; instead, provide answers that don't require clarification from the asker. - From Review

                        – Cascabel
                        9 hours ago





                        This does not provide an answer to the question. Once you have sufficient reputation you will be able to comment on any post; instead, provide answers that don't require clarification from the asker. - From Review

                        – Cascabel
                        9 hours ago











                        0














                        The real question here seems to be not "how does this error happen?", because it's easy to see how you could mistake two similar-sounding words, but rather "how is it possible that this glaring error has become so ubiquitous in the last few years, even in texts written by native speakers and people in higher education?"



                        People are now much more likely to seek news, information and entertainment on social media, blogs and sites with user-generated content like Stack Exchange, instead of in books, magazines and newspapers. (Whether this evolution is inherently good or bad is a different discussion). This means that people are now regularly exposed to non-professional writing, with no editor between the writer and the "publish" button. The fact that writers and news media are increasingly building a social media and internet presence, and bloggers and social media content creators are becoming more professional, is also blurring the line between professional and non-professional writing.



                        As a result of this, errors in spelling or grammar can spread rapidly, much like other forms of misinformation. Unless there is a turnaround in reading habits, or a new concept of reputable sources of language use in the online world emerges, or schools start to specifically target this problem, I cannot see the phenomenon of "viral" language errors going away any time soon.






                        share|improve this answer
























                        • See also: english.stackexchange.com/questions/15081/…

                          – m69
                          10 hours ago











                        • Schools do not need to target this problem specifically. They simply need to teach grammar.

                          – Rusty Core
                          4 hours ago
















                        0














                        The real question here seems to be not "how does this error happen?", because it's easy to see how you could mistake two similar-sounding words, but rather "how is it possible that this glaring error has become so ubiquitous in the last few years, even in texts written by native speakers and people in higher education?"



                        People are now much more likely to seek news, information and entertainment on social media, blogs and sites with user-generated content like Stack Exchange, instead of in books, magazines and newspapers. (Whether this evolution is inherently good or bad is a different discussion). This means that people are now regularly exposed to non-professional writing, with no editor between the writer and the "publish" button. The fact that writers and news media are increasingly building a social media and internet presence, and bloggers and social media content creators are becoming more professional, is also blurring the line between professional and non-professional writing.



                        As a result of this, errors in spelling or grammar can spread rapidly, much like other forms of misinformation. Unless there is a turnaround in reading habits, or a new concept of reputable sources of language use in the online world emerges, or schools start to specifically target this problem, I cannot see the phenomenon of "viral" language errors going away any time soon.






                        share|improve this answer
























                        • See also: english.stackexchange.com/questions/15081/…

                          – m69
                          10 hours ago











                        • Schools do not need to target this problem specifically. They simply need to teach grammar.

                          – Rusty Core
                          4 hours ago














                        0












                        0








                        0







                        The real question here seems to be not "how does this error happen?", because it's easy to see how you could mistake two similar-sounding words, but rather "how is it possible that this glaring error has become so ubiquitous in the last few years, even in texts written by native speakers and people in higher education?"



                        People are now much more likely to seek news, information and entertainment on social media, blogs and sites with user-generated content like Stack Exchange, instead of in books, magazines and newspapers. (Whether this evolution is inherently good or bad is a different discussion). This means that people are now regularly exposed to non-professional writing, with no editor between the writer and the "publish" button. The fact that writers and news media are increasingly building a social media and internet presence, and bloggers and social media content creators are becoming more professional, is also blurring the line between professional and non-professional writing.



                        As a result of this, errors in spelling or grammar can spread rapidly, much like other forms of misinformation. Unless there is a turnaround in reading habits, or a new concept of reputable sources of language use in the online world emerges, or schools start to specifically target this problem, I cannot see the phenomenon of "viral" language errors going away any time soon.






                        share|improve this answer













                        The real question here seems to be not "how does this error happen?", because it's easy to see how you could mistake two similar-sounding words, but rather "how is it possible that this glaring error has become so ubiquitous in the last few years, even in texts written by native speakers and people in higher education?"



                        People are now much more likely to seek news, information and entertainment on social media, blogs and sites with user-generated content like Stack Exchange, instead of in books, magazines and newspapers. (Whether this evolution is inherently good or bad is a different discussion). This means that people are now regularly exposed to non-professional writing, with no editor between the writer and the "publish" button. The fact that writers and news media are increasingly building a social media and internet presence, and bloggers and social media content creators are becoming more professional, is also blurring the line between professional and non-professional writing.



                        As a result of this, errors in spelling or grammar can spread rapidly, much like other forms of misinformation. Unless there is a turnaround in reading habits, or a new concept of reputable sources of language use in the online world emerges, or schools start to specifically target this problem, I cannot see the phenomenon of "viral" language errors going away any time soon.







                        share|improve this answer












                        share|improve this answer



                        share|improve this answer










                        answered 10 hours ago









                        m69m69

                        25028




                        25028













                        • See also: english.stackexchange.com/questions/15081/…

                          – m69
                          10 hours ago











                        • Schools do not need to target this problem specifically. They simply need to teach grammar.

                          – Rusty Core
                          4 hours ago



















                        • See also: english.stackexchange.com/questions/15081/…

                          – m69
                          10 hours ago











                        • Schools do not need to target this problem specifically. They simply need to teach grammar.

                          – Rusty Core
                          4 hours ago

















                        See also: english.stackexchange.com/questions/15081/…

                        – m69
                        10 hours ago





                        See also: english.stackexchange.com/questions/15081/…

                        – m69
                        10 hours ago













                        Schools do not need to target this problem specifically. They simply need to teach grammar.

                        – Rusty Core
                        4 hours ago





                        Schools do not need to target this problem specifically. They simply need to teach grammar.

                        – Rusty Core
                        4 hours ago











                        0














                        What most of you are missing is that "of" is preposition, and prepositions are slippery beasts. The "rules" for prepositions are complex and, for most people, in large part incomprehensible.



                        While an English purist would quickly cry "foul!", someone with, say, a 5th-grade education might easily believe (without applying much critical thought) that, in "If I had the time I would of eaten sooner", "of eaten sooner" is a prepositional phrase which somehow modifies "I would".



                        They are speaking/writing without applying an English teacher's "starch", and to them it makes perfect sense. After all, that's how (they think) their parents speak.






                        share|improve this answer




























                          0














                          What most of you are missing is that "of" is preposition, and prepositions are slippery beasts. The "rules" for prepositions are complex and, for most people, in large part incomprehensible.



                          While an English purist would quickly cry "foul!", someone with, say, a 5th-grade education might easily believe (without applying much critical thought) that, in "If I had the time I would of eaten sooner", "of eaten sooner" is a prepositional phrase which somehow modifies "I would".



                          They are speaking/writing without applying an English teacher's "starch", and to them it makes perfect sense. After all, that's how (they think) their parents speak.






                          share|improve this answer


























                            0












                            0








                            0







                            What most of you are missing is that "of" is preposition, and prepositions are slippery beasts. The "rules" for prepositions are complex and, for most people, in large part incomprehensible.



                            While an English purist would quickly cry "foul!", someone with, say, a 5th-grade education might easily believe (without applying much critical thought) that, in "If I had the time I would of eaten sooner", "of eaten sooner" is a prepositional phrase which somehow modifies "I would".



                            They are speaking/writing without applying an English teacher's "starch", and to them it makes perfect sense. After all, that's how (they think) their parents speak.






                            share|improve this answer













                            What most of you are missing is that "of" is preposition, and prepositions are slippery beasts. The "rules" for prepositions are complex and, for most people, in large part incomprehensible.



                            While an English purist would quickly cry "foul!", someone with, say, a 5th-grade education might easily believe (without applying much critical thought) that, in "If I had the time I would of eaten sooner", "of eaten sooner" is a prepositional phrase which somehow modifies "I would".



                            They are speaking/writing without applying an English teacher's "starch", and to them it makes perfect sense. After all, that's how (they think) their parents speak.







                            share|improve this answer












                            share|improve this answer



                            share|improve this answer










                            answered 4 hours ago









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