How come people say “Would of”?
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I often read the expression “would of” used instead of “would have”. Each time I read it I get annoyed so I googled it and found out -as I expected- that it is an incorrect way to say “would have”. Now, there are a lot of brilliant slang words/expressions, so my question is, why do people use this one? It’s so annoying to read, stupid and clearly wrong, it is pointless , why did they came up with this expression?
Edit: I don't think my question is a duplicate as I didn't ask how can somebody use it (since I know it's incorrect and I know that I can use it with commas giving it a different meaning) but I asked why and how people came up with this expression.
word-choice etymology expressions
|
show 15 more comments
I often read the expression “would of” used instead of “would have”. Each time I read it I get annoyed so I googled it and found out -as I expected- that it is an incorrect way to say “would have”. Now, there are a lot of brilliant slang words/expressions, so my question is, why do people use this one? It’s so annoying to read, stupid and clearly wrong, it is pointless , why did they came up with this expression?
Edit: I don't think my question is a duplicate as I didn't ask how can somebody use it (since I know it's incorrect and I know that I can use it with commas giving it a different meaning) but I asked why and how people came up with this expression.
word-choice etymology expressions
22
Your ears are deceiving you. In most (maybe all) varieties of English, in rapid speech "would have" and "would of" are 100% indistinguishable. Nobody is "saying" something incorrect. But spelling, being part of the invented and learnt technology called "writing" (and thus almost entirely different from the natural faculty called "language") is often imperfectly learnt - especially when the rules of spelling make a distinction which is not there in the real (spoken) language.
– Colin Fine
yesterday
11
Consider that it's "would 'ave". Some people know this and realize that "would have" is the unabbreviated form, while others, probably as a child, heard "would 'ave" and took it to be "would of", and thus say and write "would of".
– Hot Licks
yesterday
23
@ColinFine: I disagree. You're right that they're nearly indistinguishable, but as a result, there's a lot of people who learned it wrong, and now say and type "would of".
– Mooing Duck
yesterday
6
@Marybnq - As a non-native speaker you probably were not speaking English for 5 years before you learned how to read/write it. In fact, you may even have been exposed to written English before you learned to speak it.
– Hot Licks
yesterday
11
@Marybnq - Actually, "would've" and "would of" are virtually indistinguishable.
– Hot Licks
yesterday
|
show 15 more comments
I often read the expression “would of” used instead of “would have”. Each time I read it I get annoyed so I googled it and found out -as I expected- that it is an incorrect way to say “would have”. Now, there are a lot of brilliant slang words/expressions, so my question is, why do people use this one? It’s so annoying to read, stupid and clearly wrong, it is pointless , why did they came up with this expression?
Edit: I don't think my question is a duplicate as I didn't ask how can somebody use it (since I know it's incorrect and I know that I can use it with commas giving it a different meaning) but I asked why and how people came up with this expression.
word-choice etymology expressions
I often read the expression “would of” used instead of “would have”. Each time I read it I get annoyed so I googled it and found out -as I expected- that it is an incorrect way to say “would have”. Now, there are a lot of brilliant slang words/expressions, so my question is, why do people use this one? It’s so annoying to read, stupid and clearly wrong, it is pointless , why did they came up with this expression?
Edit: I don't think my question is a duplicate as I didn't ask how can somebody use it (since I know it's incorrect and I know that I can use it with commas giving it a different meaning) but I asked why and how people came up with this expression.
word-choice etymology expressions
word-choice etymology expressions
edited 7 hours ago
Marybnq
asked yesterday
MarybnqMarybnq
371113
371113
22
Your ears are deceiving you. In most (maybe all) varieties of English, in rapid speech "would have" and "would of" are 100% indistinguishable. Nobody is "saying" something incorrect. But spelling, being part of the invented and learnt technology called "writing" (and thus almost entirely different from the natural faculty called "language") is often imperfectly learnt - especially when the rules of spelling make a distinction which is not there in the real (spoken) language.
– Colin Fine
yesterday
11
Consider that it's "would 'ave". Some people know this and realize that "would have" is the unabbreviated form, while others, probably as a child, heard "would 'ave" and took it to be "would of", and thus say and write "would of".
– Hot Licks
yesterday
23
@ColinFine: I disagree. You're right that they're nearly indistinguishable, but as a result, there's a lot of people who learned it wrong, and now say and type "would of".
– Mooing Duck
yesterday
6
@Marybnq - As a non-native speaker you probably were not speaking English for 5 years before you learned how to read/write it. In fact, you may even have been exposed to written English before you learned to speak it.
– Hot Licks
yesterday
11
@Marybnq - Actually, "would've" and "would of" are virtually indistinguishable.
– Hot Licks
yesterday
|
show 15 more comments
22
Your ears are deceiving you. In most (maybe all) varieties of English, in rapid speech "would have" and "would of" are 100% indistinguishable. Nobody is "saying" something incorrect. But spelling, being part of the invented and learnt technology called "writing" (and thus almost entirely different from the natural faculty called "language") is often imperfectly learnt - especially when the rules of spelling make a distinction which is not there in the real (spoken) language.
– Colin Fine
yesterday
11
Consider that it's "would 'ave". Some people know this and realize that "would have" is the unabbreviated form, while others, probably as a child, heard "would 'ave" and took it to be "would of", and thus say and write "would of".
– Hot Licks
yesterday
23
@ColinFine: I disagree. You're right that they're nearly indistinguishable, but as a result, there's a lot of people who learned it wrong, and now say and type "would of".
– Mooing Duck
yesterday
6
@Marybnq - As a non-native speaker you probably were not speaking English for 5 years before you learned how to read/write it. In fact, you may even have been exposed to written English before you learned to speak it.
– Hot Licks
yesterday
11
@Marybnq - Actually, "would've" and "would of" are virtually indistinguishable.
– Hot Licks
yesterday
22
22
Your ears are deceiving you. In most (maybe all) varieties of English, in rapid speech "would have" and "would of" are 100% indistinguishable. Nobody is "saying" something incorrect. But spelling, being part of the invented and learnt technology called "writing" (and thus almost entirely different from the natural faculty called "language") is often imperfectly learnt - especially when the rules of spelling make a distinction which is not there in the real (spoken) language.
– Colin Fine
yesterday
Your ears are deceiving you. In most (maybe all) varieties of English, in rapid speech "would have" and "would of" are 100% indistinguishable. Nobody is "saying" something incorrect. But spelling, being part of the invented and learnt technology called "writing" (and thus almost entirely different from the natural faculty called "language") is often imperfectly learnt - especially when the rules of spelling make a distinction which is not there in the real (spoken) language.
– Colin Fine
yesterday
11
11
Consider that it's "would 'ave". Some people know this and realize that "would have" is the unabbreviated form, while others, probably as a child, heard "would 'ave" and took it to be "would of", and thus say and write "would of".
– Hot Licks
yesterday
Consider that it's "would 'ave". Some people know this and realize that "would have" is the unabbreviated form, while others, probably as a child, heard "would 'ave" and took it to be "would of", and thus say and write "would of".
– Hot Licks
yesterday
23
23
@ColinFine: I disagree. You're right that they're nearly indistinguishable, but as a result, there's a lot of people who learned it wrong, and now say and type "would of".
– Mooing Duck
yesterday
@ColinFine: I disagree. You're right that they're nearly indistinguishable, but as a result, there's a lot of people who learned it wrong, and now say and type "would of".
– Mooing Duck
yesterday
6
6
@Marybnq - As a non-native speaker you probably were not speaking English for 5 years before you learned how to read/write it. In fact, you may even have been exposed to written English before you learned to speak it.
– Hot Licks
yesterday
@Marybnq - As a non-native speaker you probably were not speaking English for 5 years before you learned how to read/write it. In fact, you may even have been exposed to written English before you learned to speak it.
– Hot Licks
yesterday
11
11
@Marybnq - Actually, "would've" and "would of" are virtually indistinguishable.
– Hot Licks
yesterday
@Marybnq - Actually, "would've" and "would of" are virtually indistinguishable.
– Hot Licks
yesterday
|
show 15 more comments
7 Answers
7
active
oldest
votes
Correction: what annoys you is people writing “would of” when they are saying /ˈwʊdəv/, which is the standard pronunciation of the contraction would’ve.
The vowel of the preposition “of” is almost always reduced in actual speech, yielding /əv/. Thus “would’ve” and “would of” are homophones. So no surprise that some people spell it that way, even though it makes no grammatical sense.
Would’ve can be even further reduced to /ˈwʊdə/, which some people spell woulda. The same goes for the modals, shoulda, coulda, musta.
Spelling as it sounds can yield amusing results:
Along the way the details of his past are sordid out and he realizes that what he once thought about his parents isn't the truth at all. — Amazon.com Review.
A speaker of British English, of course, would never write sorted in this manner, but with an American flapped t, it’s a perfect fit.
34
In writing, I accept "woulda" as a dialect. I do not accept "would of", because it is clearly an error.
– Rusty Core
yesterday
1
It's up to you, but I think IPA looks better in code blocks.
– Azor Ahai
yesterday
7
+1 for sordid out
– Orangesandlemons
14 hours ago
2
People write their for there, this is the same deal. These are homophones as KarlG says.
– Lambie
10 hours ago
3
@tchrist "[woulda] is clearly a misspelling of would've just as much as would of is." — not to me. I perceive the first as intentional mangling of written language, hopefully by someone who knows how to write correctly if needed. The latter to me is clearly a mistake made by someone who picks sounds from the air and puts them to paper so to speak. Similarly, I accept cursing from someone who knows how to speak eloquently, and I despise those who use curse words as everyday interjections.
– Rusty Core
8 hours ago
|
show 10 more comments
"Would of" is a garden variety malapropism (Wikipedia - Malapropism).
Some more interesting malapropisms are "tantrum bicycle" instead of tandem bicycle, "Alcoholics Unanimous" instead of Alcoholics Anonymous, "a vast suppository of information" instead of repository of information, "Miss-Marple-ism" instead of malapropism¹ and Mike Tyson's "I might fade into Bolivian" instead of oblivion (these are all borrowed from that same Wikipedia article).
The basic idea is that no one has perfect knowledge of any language, not even the ones they speak natively. We hear things incorrectly and then repeat the mistake.
We know that English speakers often contract "would have" into "would've." This is pronounced identically (in some dialects) to "would of," so the mistake is easy to make.
¹ This one seems too perfect to be a complete mistake. The "miss" sound is totally absent from "malapropism" and the term, for those who didn't follow the Wikipedia link, comes from a character named Mrs Malaprop. It seems unlikely that the supposed speaker of "Miss-Marple-ism" wasn't aware, at least subconsciously, of the correct word, or at least its origins. In which case, this neologism may really be an eggcorn.
6
A popular example of this is the "it's a dog-eat-dog world" being written "it's a doggy dog world."
– barbecue
yesterday
6
I would not call it a malapropism, because those are errors of (real, spoken) language. These are utterly different from errors in using the learnt technology called writing.
– Colin Fine
yesterday
2
@ColinFine not sure I follow. Are you saying that the term "malapropism" can't be used for written language? That seems pretty far-fetched to me. Got a citation?
– barbecue
yesterday
1
Though I've never read any of Miss Marple, I would take "Miss-Marple-ism" to be an intentional reference to the way Miss Marple spoke.
– Hot Licks
14 hours ago
8
I would argue that this is less a case of a malapropism, and more of a mondegreen - "Would have" was contracted to "Would've", and then misheard as "would of"
– Chronocidal
14 hours ago
|
show 3 more comments
This is probably a case of hearing a phrase and assuming/guessing how it should be spelled. Would have can be abbreviated as would've, and in rapid conversation, the pronunciation of "would've" is basically the same as "would of."
add a comment |
Great question. I also get annoyed when I see this phrase, especially from people who should know better. At one of my old jobs year ago, I worked with an account manager who actually used that phrase in an e-mail, saying something like "I should of known better". Yes, an account manager "should of" had a better education to know proper grammar... or at least know that's not a phrase used by professionals.
Even though the phrase might be pronounced and heard as "should of" (or "would of" or "could of"), there's no such phrase in written English. No school that I've heard of teaches this phrase and basic rules of grammar "abbreviate the word have as 've".
And writing "should of" takes just as many characters to write as "should've", so it's not like it's text-speak.
In my opinion, it's people being stupid, ignorant, or trying to be funny/ hip/ trendy by using the wrong phrase. Then other people see it and want to be in on the joke, so they use it also.
New contributor
add a comment |
This has been answered better than I could even aspire to. However, I thought it would be interesting to realise that the same people who use (whether in speech or writing) the term 'would of' also constantly, and usually, does the same with 'could of', 'there' - instead of 'their' and 'then' instead of 'than'. This makes it hard for me to believe that it is mondegreen, since these are basic English building blocks, and no school would teach this to even allow for misinterpretation or mishearing. Surely pupils must also write, and teachers check the spelling?
To me, it's interesting, because it is commonly found on forums and popular social video website comments and as such, the perpetrators do not deal well with friendly correction from others :-)
New contributor
1
You mention speech. It is completely impossible in speech to distinguish the unstressed form of have used between a modal and the past participle from the word of: these two are perfect homophones.
– tchrist♦
9 hours ago
This does not provide an answer to the question. Once you have sufficient reputation you will be able to comment on any post; instead, provide answers that don't require clarification from the asker. - From Review
– Cascabel
9 hours ago
add a comment |
The real question here seems to be not "how does this error happen?", because it's easy to see how you could mistake two similar-sounding words, but rather "how is it possible that this glaring error has become so ubiquitous in the last few years, even in texts written by native speakers and people in higher education?"
People are now much more likely to seek news, information and entertainment on social media, blogs and sites with user-generated content like Stack Exchange, instead of in books, magazines and newspapers. (Whether this evolution is inherently good or bad is a different discussion). This means that people are now regularly exposed to non-professional writing, with no editor between the writer and the "publish" button. The fact that writers and news media are increasingly building a social media and internet presence, and bloggers and social media content creators are becoming more professional, is also blurring the line between professional and non-professional writing.
As a result of this, errors in spelling or grammar can spread rapidly, much like other forms of misinformation. Unless there is a turnaround in reading habits, or a new concept of reputable sources of language use in the online world emerges, or schools start to specifically target this problem, I cannot see the phenomenon of "viral" language errors going away any time soon.
See also: english.stackexchange.com/questions/15081/…
– m69
10 hours ago
Schools do not need to target this problem specifically. They simply need to teach grammar.
– Rusty Core
4 hours ago
add a comment |
What most of you are missing is that "of" is preposition, and prepositions are slippery beasts. The "rules" for prepositions are complex and, for most people, in large part incomprehensible.
While an English purist would quickly cry "foul!", someone with, say, a 5th-grade education might easily believe (without applying much critical thought) that, in "If I had the time I would of eaten sooner", "of eaten sooner" is a prepositional phrase which somehow modifies "I would".
They are speaking/writing without applying an English teacher's "starch", and to them it makes perfect sense. After all, that's how (they think) their parents speak.
add a comment |
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7 Answers
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Correction: what annoys you is people writing “would of” when they are saying /ˈwʊdəv/, which is the standard pronunciation of the contraction would’ve.
The vowel of the preposition “of” is almost always reduced in actual speech, yielding /əv/. Thus “would’ve” and “would of” are homophones. So no surprise that some people spell it that way, even though it makes no grammatical sense.
Would’ve can be even further reduced to /ˈwʊdə/, which some people spell woulda. The same goes for the modals, shoulda, coulda, musta.
Spelling as it sounds can yield amusing results:
Along the way the details of his past are sordid out and he realizes that what he once thought about his parents isn't the truth at all. — Amazon.com Review.
A speaker of British English, of course, would never write sorted in this manner, but with an American flapped t, it’s a perfect fit.
34
In writing, I accept "woulda" as a dialect. I do not accept "would of", because it is clearly an error.
– Rusty Core
yesterday
1
It's up to you, but I think IPA looks better in code blocks.
– Azor Ahai
yesterday
7
+1 for sordid out
– Orangesandlemons
14 hours ago
2
People write their for there, this is the same deal. These are homophones as KarlG says.
– Lambie
10 hours ago
3
@tchrist "[woulda] is clearly a misspelling of would've just as much as would of is." — not to me. I perceive the first as intentional mangling of written language, hopefully by someone who knows how to write correctly if needed. The latter to me is clearly a mistake made by someone who picks sounds from the air and puts them to paper so to speak. Similarly, I accept cursing from someone who knows how to speak eloquently, and I despise those who use curse words as everyday interjections.
– Rusty Core
8 hours ago
|
show 10 more comments
Correction: what annoys you is people writing “would of” when they are saying /ˈwʊdəv/, which is the standard pronunciation of the contraction would’ve.
The vowel of the preposition “of” is almost always reduced in actual speech, yielding /əv/. Thus “would’ve” and “would of” are homophones. So no surprise that some people spell it that way, even though it makes no grammatical sense.
Would’ve can be even further reduced to /ˈwʊdə/, which some people spell woulda. The same goes for the modals, shoulda, coulda, musta.
Spelling as it sounds can yield amusing results:
Along the way the details of his past are sordid out and he realizes that what he once thought about his parents isn't the truth at all. — Amazon.com Review.
A speaker of British English, of course, would never write sorted in this manner, but with an American flapped t, it’s a perfect fit.
34
In writing, I accept "woulda" as a dialect. I do not accept "would of", because it is clearly an error.
– Rusty Core
yesterday
1
It's up to you, but I think IPA looks better in code blocks.
– Azor Ahai
yesterday
7
+1 for sordid out
– Orangesandlemons
14 hours ago
2
People write their for there, this is the same deal. These are homophones as KarlG says.
– Lambie
10 hours ago
3
@tchrist "[woulda] is clearly a misspelling of would've just as much as would of is." — not to me. I perceive the first as intentional mangling of written language, hopefully by someone who knows how to write correctly if needed. The latter to me is clearly a mistake made by someone who picks sounds from the air and puts them to paper so to speak. Similarly, I accept cursing from someone who knows how to speak eloquently, and I despise those who use curse words as everyday interjections.
– Rusty Core
8 hours ago
|
show 10 more comments
Correction: what annoys you is people writing “would of” when they are saying /ˈwʊdəv/, which is the standard pronunciation of the contraction would’ve.
The vowel of the preposition “of” is almost always reduced in actual speech, yielding /əv/. Thus “would’ve” and “would of” are homophones. So no surprise that some people spell it that way, even though it makes no grammatical sense.
Would’ve can be even further reduced to /ˈwʊdə/, which some people spell woulda. The same goes for the modals, shoulda, coulda, musta.
Spelling as it sounds can yield amusing results:
Along the way the details of his past are sordid out and he realizes that what he once thought about his parents isn't the truth at all. — Amazon.com Review.
A speaker of British English, of course, would never write sorted in this manner, but with an American flapped t, it’s a perfect fit.
Correction: what annoys you is people writing “would of” when they are saying /ˈwʊdəv/, which is the standard pronunciation of the contraction would’ve.
The vowel of the preposition “of” is almost always reduced in actual speech, yielding /əv/. Thus “would’ve” and “would of” are homophones. So no surprise that some people spell it that way, even though it makes no grammatical sense.
Would’ve can be even further reduced to /ˈwʊdə/, which some people spell woulda. The same goes for the modals, shoulda, coulda, musta.
Spelling as it sounds can yield amusing results:
Along the way the details of his past are sordid out and he realizes that what he once thought about his parents isn't the truth at all. — Amazon.com Review.
A speaker of British English, of course, would never write sorted in this manner, but with an American flapped t, it’s a perfect fit.
answered yesterday
KarlGKarlG
23.5k63563
23.5k63563
34
In writing, I accept "woulda" as a dialect. I do not accept "would of", because it is clearly an error.
– Rusty Core
yesterday
1
It's up to you, but I think IPA looks better in code blocks.
– Azor Ahai
yesterday
7
+1 for sordid out
– Orangesandlemons
14 hours ago
2
People write their for there, this is the same deal. These are homophones as KarlG says.
– Lambie
10 hours ago
3
@tchrist "[woulda] is clearly a misspelling of would've just as much as would of is." — not to me. I perceive the first as intentional mangling of written language, hopefully by someone who knows how to write correctly if needed. The latter to me is clearly a mistake made by someone who picks sounds from the air and puts them to paper so to speak. Similarly, I accept cursing from someone who knows how to speak eloquently, and I despise those who use curse words as everyday interjections.
– Rusty Core
8 hours ago
|
show 10 more comments
34
In writing, I accept "woulda" as a dialect. I do not accept "would of", because it is clearly an error.
– Rusty Core
yesterday
1
It's up to you, but I think IPA looks better in code blocks.
– Azor Ahai
yesterday
7
+1 for sordid out
– Orangesandlemons
14 hours ago
2
People write their for there, this is the same deal. These are homophones as KarlG says.
– Lambie
10 hours ago
3
@tchrist "[woulda] is clearly a misspelling of would've just as much as would of is." — not to me. I perceive the first as intentional mangling of written language, hopefully by someone who knows how to write correctly if needed. The latter to me is clearly a mistake made by someone who picks sounds from the air and puts them to paper so to speak. Similarly, I accept cursing from someone who knows how to speak eloquently, and I despise those who use curse words as everyday interjections.
– Rusty Core
8 hours ago
34
34
In writing, I accept "woulda" as a dialect. I do not accept "would of", because it is clearly an error.
– Rusty Core
yesterday
In writing, I accept "woulda" as a dialect. I do not accept "would of", because it is clearly an error.
– Rusty Core
yesterday
1
1
It's up to you, but I think IPA looks better in code blocks.
– Azor Ahai
yesterday
It's up to you, but I think IPA looks better in code blocks.
– Azor Ahai
yesterday
7
7
+1 for sordid out
– Orangesandlemons
14 hours ago
+1 for sordid out
– Orangesandlemons
14 hours ago
2
2
People write their for there, this is the same deal. These are homophones as KarlG says.
– Lambie
10 hours ago
People write their for there, this is the same deal. These are homophones as KarlG says.
– Lambie
10 hours ago
3
3
@tchrist "[woulda] is clearly a misspelling of would've just as much as would of is." — not to me. I perceive the first as intentional mangling of written language, hopefully by someone who knows how to write correctly if needed. The latter to me is clearly a mistake made by someone who picks sounds from the air and puts them to paper so to speak. Similarly, I accept cursing from someone who knows how to speak eloquently, and I despise those who use curse words as everyday interjections.
– Rusty Core
8 hours ago
@tchrist "[woulda] is clearly a misspelling of would've just as much as would of is." — not to me. I perceive the first as intentional mangling of written language, hopefully by someone who knows how to write correctly if needed. The latter to me is clearly a mistake made by someone who picks sounds from the air and puts them to paper so to speak. Similarly, I accept cursing from someone who knows how to speak eloquently, and I despise those who use curse words as everyday interjections.
– Rusty Core
8 hours ago
|
show 10 more comments
"Would of" is a garden variety malapropism (Wikipedia - Malapropism).
Some more interesting malapropisms are "tantrum bicycle" instead of tandem bicycle, "Alcoholics Unanimous" instead of Alcoholics Anonymous, "a vast suppository of information" instead of repository of information, "Miss-Marple-ism" instead of malapropism¹ and Mike Tyson's "I might fade into Bolivian" instead of oblivion (these are all borrowed from that same Wikipedia article).
The basic idea is that no one has perfect knowledge of any language, not even the ones they speak natively. We hear things incorrectly and then repeat the mistake.
We know that English speakers often contract "would have" into "would've." This is pronounced identically (in some dialects) to "would of," so the mistake is easy to make.
¹ This one seems too perfect to be a complete mistake. The "miss" sound is totally absent from "malapropism" and the term, for those who didn't follow the Wikipedia link, comes from a character named Mrs Malaprop. It seems unlikely that the supposed speaker of "Miss-Marple-ism" wasn't aware, at least subconsciously, of the correct word, or at least its origins. In which case, this neologism may really be an eggcorn.
6
A popular example of this is the "it's a dog-eat-dog world" being written "it's a doggy dog world."
– barbecue
yesterday
6
I would not call it a malapropism, because those are errors of (real, spoken) language. These are utterly different from errors in using the learnt technology called writing.
– Colin Fine
yesterday
2
@ColinFine not sure I follow. Are you saying that the term "malapropism" can't be used for written language? That seems pretty far-fetched to me. Got a citation?
– barbecue
yesterday
1
Though I've never read any of Miss Marple, I would take "Miss-Marple-ism" to be an intentional reference to the way Miss Marple spoke.
– Hot Licks
14 hours ago
8
I would argue that this is less a case of a malapropism, and more of a mondegreen - "Would have" was contracted to "Would've", and then misheard as "would of"
– Chronocidal
14 hours ago
|
show 3 more comments
"Would of" is a garden variety malapropism (Wikipedia - Malapropism).
Some more interesting malapropisms are "tantrum bicycle" instead of tandem bicycle, "Alcoholics Unanimous" instead of Alcoholics Anonymous, "a vast suppository of information" instead of repository of information, "Miss-Marple-ism" instead of malapropism¹ and Mike Tyson's "I might fade into Bolivian" instead of oblivion (these are all borrowed from that same Wikipedia article).
The basic idea is that no one has perfect knowledge of any language, not even the ones they speak natively. We hear things incorrectly and then repeat the mistake.
We know that English speakers often contract "would have" into "would've." This is pronounced identically (in some dialects) to "would of," so the mistake is easy to make.
¹ This one seems too perfect to be a complete mistake. The "miss" sound is totally absent from "malapropism" and the term, for those who didn't follow the Wikipedia link, comes from a character named Mrs Malaprop. It seems unlikely that the supposed speaker of "Miss-Marple-ism" wasn't aware, at least subconsciously, of the correct word, or at least its origins. In which case, this neologism may really be an eggcorn.
6
A popular example of this is the "it's a dog-eat-dog world" being written "it's a doggy dog world."
– barbecue
yesterday
6
I would not call it a malapropism, because those are errors of (real, spoken) language. These are utterly different from errors in using the learnt technology called writing.
– Colin Fine
yesterday
2
@ColinFine not sure I follow. Are you saying that the term "malapropism" can't be used for written language? That seems pretty far-fetched to me. Got a citation?
– barbecue
yesterday
1
Though I've never read any of Miss Marple, I would take "Miss-Marple-ism" to be an intentional reference to the way Miss Marple spoke.
– Hot Licks
14 hours ago
8
I would argue that this is less a case of a malapropism, and more of a mondegreen - "Would have" was contracted to "Would've", and then misheard as "would of"
– Chronocidal
14 hours ago
|
show 3 more comments
"Would of" is a garden variety malapropism (Wikipedia - Malapropism).
Some more interesting malapropisms are "tantrum bicycle" instead of tandem bicycle, "Alcoholics Unanimous" instead of Alcoholics Anonymous, "a vast suppository of information" instead of repository of information, "Miss-Marple-ism" instead of malapropism¹ and Mike Tyson's "I might fade into Bolivian" instead of oblivion (these are all borrowed from that same Wikipedia article).
The basic idea is that no one has perfect knowledge of any language, not even the ones they speak natively. We hear things incorrectly and then repeat the mistake.
We know that English speakers often contract "would have" into "would've." This is pronounced identically (in some dialects) to "would of," so the mistake is easy to make.
¹ This one seems too perfect to be a complete mistake. The "miss" sound is totally absent from "malapropism" and the term, for those who didn't follow the Wikipedia link, comes from a character named Mrs Malaprop. It seems unlikely that the supposed speaker of "Miss-Marple-ism" wasn't aware, at least subconsciously, of the correct word, or at least its origins. In which case, this neologism may really be an eggcorn.
"Would of" is a garden variety malapropism (Wikipedia - Malapropism).
Some more interesting malapropisms are "tantrum bicycle" instead of tandem bicycle, "Alcoholics Unanimous" instead of Alcoholics Anonymous, "a vast suppository of information" instead of repository of information, "Miss-Marple-ism" instead of malapropism¹ and Mike Tyson's "I might fade into Bolivian" instead of oblivion (these are all borrowed from that same Wikipedia article).
The basic idea is that no one has perfect knowledge of any language, not even the ones they speak natively. We hear things incorrectly and then repeat the mistake.
We know that English speakers often contract "would have" into "would've." This is pronounced identically (in some dialects) to "would of," so the mistake is easy to make.
¹ This one seems too perfect to be a complete mistake. The "miss" sound is totally absent from "malapropism" and the term, for those who didn't follow the Wikipedia link, comes from a character named Mrs Malaprop. It seems unlikely that the supposed speaker of "Miss-Marple-ism" wasn't aware, at least subconsciously, of the correct word, or at least its origins. In which case, this neologism may really be an eggcorn.
edited 15 hours ago
Toby Speight
1,078715
1,078715
answered yesterday
JuhaszJuhasz
3,5341815
3,5341815
6
A popular example of this is the "it's a dog-eat-dog world" being written "it's a doggy dog world."
– barbecue
yesterday
6
I would not call it a malapropism, because those are errors of (real, spoken) language. These are utterly different from errors in using the learnt technology called writing.
– Colin Fine
yesterday
2
@ColinFine not sure I follow. Are you saying that the term "malapropism" can't be used for written language? That seems pretty far-fetched to me. Got a citation?
– barbecue
yesterday
1
Though I've never read any of Miss Marple, I would take "Miss-Marple-ism" to be an intentional reference to the way Miss Marple spoke.
– Hot Licks
14 hours ago
8
I would argue that this is less a case of a malapropism, and more of a mondegreen - "Would have" was contracted to "Would've", and then misheard as "would of"
– Chronocidal
14 hours ago
|
show 3 more comments
6
A popular example of this is the "it's a dog-eat-dog world" being written "it's a doggy dog world."
– barbecue
yesterday
6
I would not call it a malapropism, because those are errors of (real, spoken) language. These are utterly different from errors in using the learnt technology called writing.
– Colin Fine
yesterday
2
@ColinFine not sure I follow. Are you saying that the term "malapropism" can't be used for written language? That seems pretty far-fetched to me. Got a citation?
– barbecue
yesterday
1
Though I've never read any of Miss Marple, I would take "Miss-Marple-ism" to be an intentional reference to the way Miss Marple spoke.
– Hot Licks
14 hours ago
8
I would argue that this is less a case of a malapropism, and more of a mondegreen - "Would have" was contracted to "Would've", and then misheard as "would of"
– Chronocidal
14 hours ago
6
6
A popular example of this is the "it's a dog-eat-dog world" being written "it's a doggy dog world."
– barbecue
yesterday
A popular example of this is the "it's a dog-eat-dog world" being written "it's a doggy dog world."
– barbecue
yesterday
6
6
I would not call it a malapropism, because those are errors of (real, spoken) language. These are utterly different from errors in using the learnt technology called writing.
– Colin Fine
yesterday
I would not call it a malapropism, because those are errors of (real, spoken) language. These are utterly different from errors in using the learnt technology called writing.
– Colin Fine
yesterday
2
2
@ColinFine not sure I follow. Are you saying that the term "malapropism" can't be used for written language? That seems pretty far-fetched to me. Got a citation?
– barbecue
yesterday
@ColinFine not sure I follow. Are you saying that the term "malapropism" can't be used for written language? That seems pretty far-fetched to me. Got a citation?
– barbecue
yesterday
1
1
Though I've never read any of Miss Marple, I would take "Miss-Marple-ism" to be an intentional reference to the way Miss Marple spoke.
– Hot Licks
14 hours ago
Though I've never read any of Miss Marple, I would take "Miss-Marple-ism" to be an intentional reference to the way Miss Marple spoke.
– Hot Licks
14 hours ago
8
8
I would argue that this is less a case of a malapropism, and more of a mondegreen - "Would have" was contracted to "Would've", and then misheard as "would of"
– Chronocidal
14 hours ago
I would argue that this is less a case of a malapropism, and more of a mondegreen - "Would have" was contracted to "Would've", and then misheard as "would of"
– Chronocidal
14 hours ago
|
show 3 more comments
This is probably a case of hearing a phrase and assuming/guessing how it should be spelled. Would have can be abbreviated as would've, and in rapid conversation, the pronunciation of "would've" is basically the same as "would of."
add a comment |
This is probably a case of hearing a phrase and assuming/guessing how it should be spelled. Would have can be abbreviated as would've, and in rapid conversation, the pronunciation of "would've" is basically the same as "would of."
add a comment |
This is probably a case of hearing a phrase and assuming/guessing how it should be spelled. Would have can be abbreviated as would've, and in rapid conversation, the pronunciation of "would've" is basically the same as "would of."
This is probably a case of hearing a phrase and assuming/guessing how it should be spelled. Would have can be abbreviated as would've, and in rapid conversation, the pronunciation of "would've" is basically the same as "would of."
answered yesterday
barbecuebarbecue
4,5761128
4,5761128
add a comment |
add a comment |
Great question. I also get annoyed when I see this phrase, especially from people who should know better. At one of my old jobs year ago, I worked with an account manager who actually used that phrase in an e-mail, saying something like "I should of known better". Yes, an account manager "should of" had a better education to know proper grammar... or at least know that's not a phrase used by professionals.
Even though the phrase might be pronounced and heard as "should of" (or "would of" or "could of"), there's no such phrase in written English. No school that I've heard of teaches this phrase and basic rules of grammar "abbreviate the word have as 've".
And writing "should of" takes just as many characters to write as "should've", so it's not like it's text-speak.
In my opinion, it's people being stupid, ignorant, or trying to be funny/ hip/ trendy by using the wrong phrase. Then other people see it and want to be in on the joke, so they use it also.
New contributor
add a comment |
Great question. I also get annoyed when I see this phrase, especially from people who should know better. At one of my old jobs year ago, I worked with an account manager who actually used that phrase in an e-mail, saying something like "I should of known better". Yes, an account manager "should of" had a better education to know proper grammar... or at least know that's not a phrase used by professionals.
Even though the phrase might be pronounced and heard as "should of" (or "would of" or "could of"), there's no such phrase in written English. No school that I've heard of teaches this phrase and basic rules of grammar "abbreviate the word have as 've".
And writing "should of" takes just as many characters to write as "should've", so it's not like it's text-speak.
In my opinion, it's people being stupid, ignorant, or trying to be funny/ hip/ trendy by using the wrong phrase. Then other people see it and want to be in on the joke, so they use it also.
New contributor
add a comment |
Great question. I also get annoyed when I see this phrase, especially from people who should know better. At one of my old jobs year ago, I worked with an account manager who actually used that phrase in an e-mail, saying something like "I should of known better". Yes, an account manager "should of" had a better education to know proper grammar... or at least know that's not a phrase used by professionals.
Even though the phrase might be pronounced and heard as "should of" (or "would of" or "could of"), there's no such phrase in written English. No school that I've heard of teaches this phrase and basic rules of grammar "abbreviate the word have as 've".
And writing "should of" takes just as many characters to write as "should've", so it's not like it's text-speak.
In my opinion, it's people being stupid, ignorant, or trying to be funny/ hip/ trendy by using the wrong phrase. Then other people see it and want to be in on the joke, so they use it also.
New contributor
Great question. I also get annoyed when I see this phrase, especially from people who should know better. At one of my old jobs year ago, I worked with an account manager who actually used that phrase in an e-mail, saying something like "I should of known better". Yes, an account manager "should of" had a better education to know proper grammar... or at least know that's not a phrase used by professionals.
Even though the phrase might be pronounced and heard as "should of" (or "would of" or "could of"), there's no such phrase in written English. No school that I've heard of teaches this phrase and basic rules of grammar "abbreviate the word have as 've".
And writing "should of" takes just as many characters to write as "should've", so it's not like it's text-speak.
In my opinion, it's people being stupid, ignorant, or trying to be funny/ hip/ trendy by using the wrong phrase. Then other people see it and want to be in on the joke, so they use it also.
New contributor
New contributor
answered 13 hours ago
JohnJohn
291
291
New contributor
New contributor
add a comment |
add a comment |
This has been answered better than I could even aspire to. However, I thought it would be interesting to realise that the same people who use (whether in speech or writing) the term 'would of' also constantly, and usually, does the same with 'could of', 'there' - instead of 'their' and 'then' instead of 'than'. This makes it hard for me to believe that it is mondegreen, since these are basic English building blocks, and no school would teach this to even allow for misinterpretation or mishearing. Surely pupils must also write, and teachers check the spelling?
To me, it's interesting, because it is commonly found on forums and popular social video website comments and as such, the perpetrators do not deal well with friendly correction from others :-)
New contributor
1
You mention speech. It is completely impossible in speech to distinguish the unstressed form of have used between a modal and the past participle from the word of: these two are perfect homophones.
– tchrist♦
9 hours ago
This does not provide an answer to the question. Once you have sufficient reputation you will be able to comment on any post; instead, provide answers that don't require clarification from the asker. - From Review
– Cascabel
9 hours ago
add a comment |
This has been answered better than I could even aspire to. However, I thought it would be interesting to realise that the same people who use (whether in speech or writing) the term 'would of' also constantly, and usually, does the same with 'could of', 'there' - instead of 'their' and 'then' instead of 'than'. This makes it hard for me to believe that it is mondegreen, since these are basic English building blocks, and no school would teach this to even allow for misinterpretation or mishearing. Surely pupils must also write, and teachers check the spelling?
To me, it's interesting, because it is commonly found on forums and popular social video website comments and as such, the perpetrators do not deal well with friendly correction from others :-)
New contributor
1
You mention speech. It is completely impossible in speech to distinguish the unstressed form of have used between a modal and the past participle from the word of: these two are perfect homophones.
– tchrist♦
9 hours ago
This does not provide an answer to the question. Once you have sufficient reputation you will be able to comment on any post; instead, provide answers that don't require clarification from the asker. - From Review
– Cascabel
9 hours ago
add a comment |
This has been answered better than I could even aspire to. However, I thought it would be interesting to realise that the same people who use (whether in speech or writing) the term 'would of' also constantly, and usually, does the same with 'could of', 'there' - instead of 'their' and 'then' instead of 'than'. This makes it hard for me to believe that it is mondegreen, since these are basic English building blocks, and no school would teach this to even allow for misinterpretation or mishearing. Surely pupils must also write, and teachers check the spelling?
To me, it's interesting, because it is commonly found on forums and popular social video website comments and as such, the perpetrators do not deal well with friendly correction from others :-)
New contributor
This has been answered better than I could even aspire to. However, I thought it would be interesting to realise that the same people who use (whether in speech or writing) the term 'would of' also constantly, and usually, does the same with 'could of', 'there' - instead of 'their' and 'then' instead of 'than'. This makes it hard for me to believe that it is mondegreen, since these are basic English building blocks, and no school would teach this to even allow for misinterpretation or mishearing. Surely pupils must also write, and teachers check the spelling?
To me, it's interesting, because it is commonly found on forums and popular social video website comments and as such, the perpetrators do not deal well with friendly correction from others :-)
New contributor
New contributor
answered 11 hours ago
Marlon van der LindeMarlon van der Linde
1011
1011
New contributor
New contributor
1
You mention speech. It is completely impossible in speech to distinguish the unstressed form of have used between a modal and the past participle from the word of: these two are perfect homophones.
– tchrist♦
9 hours ago
This does not provide an answer to the question. Once you have sufficient reputation you will be able to comment on any post; instead, provide answers that don't require clarification from the asker. - From Review
– Cascabel
9 hours ago
add a comment |
1
You mention speech. It is completely impossible in speech to distinguish the unstressed form of have used between a modal and the past participle from the word of: these two are perfect homophones.
– tchrist♦
9 hours ago
This does not provide an answer to the question. Once you have sufficient reputation you will be able to comment on any post; instead, provide answers that don't require clarification from the asker. - From Review
– Cascabel
9 hours ago
1
1
You mention speech. It is completely impossible in speech to distinguish the unstressed form of have used between a modal and the past participle from the word of: these two are perfect homophones.
– tchrist♦
9 hours ago
You mention speech. It is completely impossible in speech to distinguish the unstressed form of have used between a modal and the past participle from the word of: these two are perfect homophones.
– tchrist♦
9 hours ago
This does not provide an answer to the question. Once you have sufficient reputation you will be able to comment on any post; instead, provide answers that don't require clarification from the asker. - From Review
– Cascabel
9 hours ago
This does not provide an answer to the question. Once you have sufficient reputation you will be able to comment on any post; instead, provide answers that don't require clarification from the asker. - From Review
– Cascabel
9 hours ago
add a comment |
The real question here seems to be not "how does this error happen?", because it's easy to see how you could mistake two similar-sounding words, but rather "how is it possible that this glaring error has become so ubiquitous in the last few years, even in texts written by native speakers and people in higher education?"
People are now much more likely to seek news, information and entertainment on social media, blogs and sites with user-generated content like Stack Exchange, instead of in books, magazines and newspapers. (Whether this evolution is inherently good or bad is a different discussion). This means that people are now regularly exposed to non-professional writing, with no editor between the writer and the "publish" button. The fact that writers and news media are increasingly building a social media and internet presence, and bloggers and social media content creators are becoming more professional, is also blurring the line between professional and non-professional writing.
As a result of this, errors in spelling or grammar can spread rapidly, much like other forms of misinformation. Unless there is a turnaround in reading habits, or a new concept of reputable sources of language use in the online world emerges, or schools start to specifically target this problem, I cannot see the phenomenon of "viral" language errors going away any time soon.
See also: english.stackexchange.com/questions/15081/…
– m69
10 hours ago
Schools do not need to target this problem specifically. They simply need to teach grammar.
– Rusty Core
4 hours ago
add a comment |
The real question here seems to be not "how does this error happen?", because it's easy to see how you could mistake two similar-sounding words, but rather "how is it possible that this glaring error has become so ubiquitous in the last few years, even in texts written by native speakers and people in higher education?"
People are now much more likely to seek news, information and entertainment on social media, blogs and sites with user-generated content like Stack Exchange, instead of in books, magazines and newspapers. (Whether this evolution is inherently good or bad is a different discussion). This means that people are now regularly exposed to non-professional writing, with no editor between the writer and the "publish" button. The fact that writers and news media are increasingly building a social media and internet presence, and bloggers and social media content creators are becoming more professional, is also blurring the line between professional and non-professional writing.
As a result of this, errors in spelling or grammar can spread rapidly, much like other forms of misinformation. Unless there is a turnaround in reading habits, or a new concept of reputable sources of language use in the online world emerges, or schools start to specifically target this problem, I cannot see the phenomenon of "viral" language errors going away any time soon.
See also: english.stackexchange.com/questions/15081/…
– m69
10 hours ago
Schools do not need to target this problem specifically. They simply need to teach grammar.
– Rusty Core
4 hours ago
add a comment |
The real question here seems to be not "how does this error happen?", because it's easy to see how you could mistake two similar-sounding words, but rather "how is it possible that this glaring error has become so ubiquitous in the last few years, even in texts written by native speakers and people in higher education?"
People are now much more likely to seek news, information and entertainment on social media, blogs and sites with user-generated content like Stack Exchange, instead of in books, magazines and newspapers. (Whether this evolution is inherently good or bad is a different discussion). This means that people are now regularly exposed to non-professional writing, with no editor between the writer and the "publish" button. The fact that writers and news media are increasingly building a social media and internet presence, and bloggers and social media content creators are becoming more professional, is also blurring the line between professional and non-professional writing.
As a result of this, errors in spelling or grammar can spread rapidly, much like other forms of misinformation. Unless there is a turnaround in reading habits, or a new concept of reputable sources of language use in the online world emerges, or schools start to specifically target this problem, I cannot see the phenomenon of "viral" language errors going away any time soon.
The real question here seems to be not "how does this error happen?", because it's easy to see how you could mistake two similar-sounding words, but rather "how is it possible that this glaring error has become so ubiquitous in the last few years, even in texts written by native speakers and people in higher education?"
People are now much more likely to seek news, information and entertainment on social media, blogs and sites with user-generated content like Stack Exchange, instead of in books, magazines and newspapers. (Whether this evolution is inherently good or bad is a different discussion). This means that people are now regularly exposed to non-professional writing, with no editor between the writer and the "publish" button. The fact that writers and news media are increasingly building a social media and internet presence, and bloggers and social media content creators are becoming more professional, is also blurring the line between professional and non-professional writing.
As a result of this, errors in spelling or grammar can spread rapidly, much like other forms of misinformation. Unless there is a turnaround in reading habits, or a new concept of reputable sources of language use in the online world emerges, or schools start to specifically target this problem, I cannot see the phenomenon of "viral" language errors going away any time soon.
answered 10 hours ago
m69m69
25028
25028
See also: english.stackexchange.com/questions/15081/…
– m69
10 hours ago
Schools do not need to target this problem specifically. They simply need to teach grammar.
– Rusty Core
4 hours ago
add a comment |
See also: english.stackexchange.com/questions/15081/…
– m69
10 hours ago
Schools do not need to target this problem specifically. They simply need to teach grammar.
– Rusty Core
4 hours ago
See also: english.stackexchange.com/questions/15081/…
– m69
10 hours ago
See also: english.stackexchange.com/questions/15081/…
– m69
10 hours ago
Schools do not need to target this problem specifically. They simply need to teach grammar.
– Rusty Core
4 hours ago
Schools do not need to target this problem specifically. They simply need to teach grammar.
– Rusty Core
4 hours ago
add a comment |
What most of you are missing is that "of" is preposition, and prepositions are slippery beasts. The "rules" for prepositions are complex and, for most people, in large part incomprehensible.
While an English purist would quickly cry "foul!", someone with, say, a 5th-grade education might easily believe (without applying much critical thought) that, in "If I had the time I would of eaten sooner", "of eaten sooner" is a prepositional phrase which somehow modifies "I would".
They are speaking/writing without applying an English teacher's "starch", and to them it makes perfect sense. After all, that's how (they think) their parents speak.
add a comment |
What most of you are missing is that "of" is preposition, and prepositions are slippery beasts. The "rules" for prepositions are complex and, for most people, in large part incomprehensible.
While an English purist would quickly cry "foul!", someone with, say, a 5th-grade education might easily believe (without applying much critical thought) that, in "If I had the time I would of eaten sooner", "of eaten sooner" is a prepositional phrase which somehow modifies "I would".
They are speaking/writing without applying an English teacher's "starch", and to them it makes perfect sense. After all, that's how (they think) their parents speak.
add a comment |
What most of you are missing is that "of" is preposition, and prepositions are slippery beasts. The "rules" for prepositions are complex and, for most people, in large part incomprehensible.
While an English purist would quickly cry "foul!", someone with, say, a 5th-grade education might easily believe (without applying much critical thought) that, in "If I had the time I would of eaten sooner", "of eaten sooner" is a prepositional phrase which somehow modifies "I would".
They are speaking/writing without applying an English teacher's "starch", and to them it makes perfect sense. After all, that's how (they think) their parents speak.
What most of you are missing is that "of" is preposition, and prepositions are slippery beasts. The "rules" for prepositions are complex and, for most people, in large part incomprehensible.
While an English purist would quickly cry "foul!", someone with, say, a 5th-grade education might easily believe (without applying much critical thought) that, in "If I had the time I would of eaten sooner", "of eaten sooner" is a prepositional phrase which somehow modifies "I would".
They are speaking/writing without applying an English teacher's "starch", and to them it makes perfect sense. After all, that's how (they think) their parents speak.
answered 4 hours ago
Hot LicksHot Licks
19.5k23777
19.5k23777
add a comment |
add a comment |
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22
Your ears are deceiving you. In most (maybe all) varieties of English, in rapid speech "would have" and "would of" are 100% indistinguishable. Nobody is "saying" something incorrect. But spelling, being part of the invented and learnt technology called "writing" (and thus almost entirely different from the natural faculty called "language") is often imperfectly learnt - especially when the rules of spelling make a distinction which is not there in the real (spoken) language.
– Colin Fine
yesterday
11
Consider that it's "would 'ave". Some people know this and realize that "would have" is the unabbreviated form, while others, probably as a child, heard "would 'ave" and took it to be "would of", and thus say and write "would of".
– Hot Licks
yesterday
23
@ColinFine: I disagree. You're right that they're nearly indistinguishable, but as a result, there's a lot of people who learned it wrong, and now say and type "would of".
– Mooing Duck
yesterday
6
@Marybnq - As a non-native speaker you probably were not speaking English for 5 years before you learned how to read/write it. In fact, you may even have been exposed to written English before you learned to speak it.
– Hot Licks
yesterday
11
@Marybnq - Actually, "would've" and "would of" are virtually indistinguishable.
– Hot Licks
yesterday