How can control of the elder wand be gained by killing OR by disarming the owner?












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Isn't it a major flaw in Harry Potter that Voldemort says control of the elder wand is gained by killing its owner and Harry says it's done by disarming the owner? Killing and disarming are colossally different strategies. Also,if disarming the owner would change ownership, I'd think that the wand would change hands a lot more often. Although I've read comments to validate the disarming, IMO, the only reason for the Elder wand to change owners would be the death of the current owner. Seems like a lapse in consistency.I think other explanations supporting disarming as a path to ownership is somewhat ridiculous.









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    Isn't it a major flaw in Harry Potter that Voldemort says control of the elder wand is gained by killing its owner and Harry says it's done by disarming the owner? Killing and disarming are colossally different strategies. Also,if disarming the owner would change ownership, I'd think that the wand would change hands a lot more often. Although I've read comments to validate the disarming, IMO, the only reason for the Elder wand to change owners would be the death of the current owner. Seems like a lapse in consistency.I think other explanations supporting disarming as a path to ownership is somewhat ridiculous.









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      Isn't it a major flaw in Harry Potter that Voldemort says control of the elder wand is gained by killing its owner and Harry says it's done by disarming the owner? Killing and disarming are colossally different strategies. Also,if disarming the owner would change ownership, I'd think that the wand would change hands a lot more often. Although I've read comments to validate the disarming, IMO, the only reason for the Elder wand to change owners would be the death of the current owner. Seems like a lapse in consistency.I think other explanations supporting disarming as a path to ownership is somewhat ridiculous.









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      Isn't it a major flaw in Harry Potter that Voldemort says control of the elder wand is gained by killing its owner and Harry says it's done by disarming the owner? Killing and disarming are colossally different strategies. Also,if disarming the owner would change ownership, I'd think that the wand would change hands a lot more often. Although I've read comments to validate the disarming, IMO, the only reason for the Elder wand to change owners would be the death of the current owner. Seems like a lapse in consistency.I think other explanations supporting disarming as a path to ownership is somewhat ridiculous.







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